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Question 1:

The throughput rate is the rate at which individuals, once enrolled, can be processed and identified or authenticated by a biometric system. Acceptable throughput rates are in the range of:

A. 100 subjects per minute.

B. 25 subjects per minute.

C. 10 subjects per minute.

D. 50 subjects per minute.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The throughput rate is the rate at which individuals, once enrolled, can be processed and identified or authenticated by a biometric system. Acceptable throughput rates are in the range of 10 subjects per minute. Things that may

impact the throughput rate for some types of biometric systems may include:

A concern with retina scanning systems may be the exchange of body fluids on the eyepiece.

Another concern would be the retinal pattern that could reveal changes in a person\’s health, such as diabetes or high blood pressure.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 38

Question 2:

In discretionary access environments, which of the following entities is authorized to grant information access to other people?

A. Manager

B. Group Leader

C. Security Manager

D. Data Owner

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: In Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments, the user who creates a file is also considered the owner and has full control over the file including the ability to set permissions for that file. The following answers are incorrect:

Manager is incorrect because in Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments it is the owner/user that is authorized to grant information access to other people group leader. Is incorrect because in Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments it is the owner/user that is authorized to grant information access to other people security manager. Is incorrect because in Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments it is the owner/user that is authorized to grant information access to other people.

IMPORTANT NOTE:

The term Data Owner is also used within Classifications as well. Under the subject of classification the Data Owner is a person from management who has been entrusted with a data set that belongs to the company. For example it could be the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) who is entrusted with all of the financial data for a company. As such the CFO would determine the classification of the financial data and who can access as well. The Data Owner would then tell the Data Custodian (a technical person) what the classification and need to know is on the specific set of data.

The term Data Owner under DAC simply means whoever created the file and as the creator of the file the owner has full access and can grant access to other subjects based on their identity.

Question 3:

Which of the following protects a password from eavesdroppers and supports the encryption of communication?

A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

B. Challenge Handshake Identification Protocol (CHIP)

C. Challenge Handshake Encryption Protocol (CHEP)

D. Challenge Handshake Substitution Protocol (CHSP)

Correct Answer: A

CHAP: A protocol that uses a three way hanbdshake The server sends the client a challenge which includes a random value(a nonce) to thwart replay attacks. The client responds with the MD5 hash of the nonce and the password.

The authentication is successful if the client\’s response is the one that the server expected.

Reference: Page 450, OIG 2007

CHAP protects the password from eavesdroppers and supports the encryption of communication.

Reference: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 44

Question 4:

During an IS audit, auditor has observed that authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions and there is a possibility to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. Which of the following technique an attacker could user to force authorization step before authentication?

A. Eavesdropping

B. Traffic analysis

C. Masquerading

D. Race Condition

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: A race condition is when processes carry out their tasks on a shared resource in an incorrect order. A race condition is possible when two or more processes use a shared resource, as in data within a variable. It is important that

the processes carry out their functionality in the correct sequence. If process 2 carried out its task on the data before process 1, the result will be much different than if process1 carried out its tasks on the data before process 2

In software, when the authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions, there is a possibility an attacker could use a race condition to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. This would be a

flaw in the software that the attacker has figured out how to exploit. A race condition occurs when two or more processes use the same resource and the sequences of steps within the software can be carried out in an improper order,

something that can drastically affect the output. So, an attacker can force the authorization step to take place before the authentication step and gain unauthorized access to a resource.

The following answers are incorrect:

Eavesdropping – is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without their consent, as defined by Black\’s Law Dictionary. This is commonly thought to be unethical and there is an old adage that “eavesdroppers seldom

hear anything good of themselves…eavesdroppers always try to listen to matters that concern them.”

Traffic analysis – is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the

greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic. Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis, and is

a concern in computer security.

Masquerading – A masquerade attack is an attack that uses a fake identity, such as a network identity, to gain unauthorized access to personal computer information through legitimate access identification. If an authorization process is not

fully protected, it can become extremely vulnerable to a masquerade attack. Masquerade attacks can be perpetrated using stolen passwords and logons, by locating gaps in programs, or by finding a way around the authentication process.

The attack can be triggered either by someone within the organization or by an outsider if the organization is connected to a public network. The amount of access masquerade attackers get depends on the level of authorization they\’ve

managed to attain. As such, masquerade attackers can have a full smorgasbord of cyber crime opportunities if they\’ve gained the highest access authority to a business organization. Personal attacks, although less common, can also be

harmful.

Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:

CISA review manual 2014 Page number 324

Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 66 CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 161

Question 5:

Which of the following control pairings include: organizational policies and procedures, pre- employment background checks, strict hiring practices, employment agreements, employee termination procedures, vacation scheduling, labeling of sensitive materials, increased supervision, security awareness training, behavior awareness, and sign-up procedures to obtain access to information systems and networks?

A. Preventive/Administrative Pairing

B. Preventive/Technical Pairing

C. Preventive/Physical Pairing

D. Detective/Administrative Pairing

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: organizational policies and procedures, pre-employment background checks, strict hiring practices, employment agreements, friendly and unfriendly employee termination procedures, vacation scheduling, labeling of sensitive materials, increased supervision, security awareness training, behavior awareness, and sign-up procedures to obtain access to information systems and networks. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 34

CISSP Study GuideCISSP Exam QuestionsCISSP Braindumps

Question 6:

Which of the following is most relevant to determining the maximum effective cost of access control?

A. the value of information that is protected.

B. management\’s perceptions regarding data importance.

C. budget planning related to base versus incremental spending.

D. the cost to replace lost data.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The cost of access control must be commensurate with the value of the information that is being protected.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 49

Question 7:

What is an error called that causes a system to be vulnerable because of the environment in which it is installed?

A. Configuration error

B. Environmental error

C. Access validation error

D. Exceptional condition handling error

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: In an environmental error, the environment in which a system is installed somehow causes the system to be vulnerable. This may be due, for example, to an unexpected interaction between an application and the operating

system or between two applications on the same host. A configuration error occurs when user controllable settings in a system are set such that the system is vulnerable. In an access validation error, the system is vulnerable because the

access control mechanism is faulty. In an exceptional condition handling error, the system somehow becomes vulnerable due to an exceptional condition that has arisen.

Source: DUPUIS, Clement, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 10, march 2002 (page 106).

Question 8:

What is called the percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate?

A. False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error

B. False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error

C. Crossover Error Rate (CER)

D. Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER)

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate is called the Crossover Error Rate (CER). Another name for the CER is the Equal Error Rate (EER), any of the two terms could be used.

Equal error rate or crossover error rate (EER or CER)

It is the rate at which both accept and reject errors are equal. The EER is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices with different ROC curves. In general, the device with the lowest EER is most accurate.

The other choices were all wrong answers:

The following are used as performance metrics for biometric systems:

False accept rate or false match rate (FAR or FMR): the probability that the system incorrectly matches the input pattern to a non-matching template in the database. It measures the percent of invalid inputs which are incorrectly accepted. This is when an impostor would be accepted by the system false reject rate or false non-match rate (FRR or FNMR): the probability that the system fails to detect a match between the input pattern and a matching template in the database. It measures the percent of valid inputs which are incorrectly rejected. This is when a valid company employee would be rejected by the system Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER): the rate at which attempts to create a template from an input is unsuccessful. This is most commonly caused by low quality inputs.

Reference(s) used for this question: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 38 And https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biometrics

Question 9:

Why would anomaly detection IDSs often generate a large number of false positives?

A. Because they can only identify correctly attacks they already know about.

B. Because they are application-based are more subject to attacks.

C. Because they can\’t identify abnormal behavior.

D. Because normal patterns of user and system behavior can vary wildly.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Unfortunately, anomaly detectors and the Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) based on them often produce a large number of false alarms, as normal patterns of user and system behavior can vary wildly. Being only able to

identify correctly attacks they already know about is a characteristic of misuse detection (signature-based) IDSs. Application-based IDSs are a special subset of host-based IDSs that analyze the events transpiring within a software

application. They are more vulnerable to attacks than host- based IDSs. Not being able to identify abnormal behavior would not cause false positives, since they are not identified.

Source: DUPUIS, Cl?ment, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 10, march 2002 (page 92).

Question 10:

What does the * (star) integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?

A. No read up

B. No write down

C. No read down

D. No write up

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The *- (star) integrity axiom of the Biba access control model states that an object at one level of integrity is not permitted to modify an object of a higher level of integrity (no write up).

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architectures and Models (page 205).

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