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Question 1:

A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:

A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.

B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.

C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.

D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network resources.

Question 2:

.

Which of the following is of greatest concern when performing an IS audit?

A. Users\’ ability to directly modify the database

B. Users\’ ability to submit queries to the database

C. Users\’ ability to indirectly modify the database

D. Users\’ ability to directly view the database

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

A major IS audit concern is users\’ ability to directly modify the database.

Question 3:

The MAJOR advantage of the risk assessment approach over the baseline approach to information security management is that it ensures:

A. information assets are overprotected.

B. a basic level of protection is applied regardless of asset value.

C. appropriate levels of protection are applied to information assets.

D. an equal proportion of resources are devoted to protecting all information assets.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation: Full risk assessment determines the level of protection most appropriate to a given level of risk, while the baseline approach merely applies a standard set of protection regardless of risk. There is a cost advantage in not overprotecting information. However, an even bigger advantage is making sure that no information assets are over- or underprotected. The risk assessment approach will ensure an appropriate level of protection is applied, commensurate with the level of risk and asset value and, therefore, considering asset value. The baseline

approach does not allow more resources to be directed toward the assets at greater risk, rather than equally directing resources to all assets.

Question 4:

The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be determined based on the:

A. availability of critical and required information.

B. auditor\’s familiarity with the circumstances.

C. auditee\’s ability to find relevant evidence.

D. purpose and scope of the audit being done.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation: The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be related directly to the scope and purpose of the audit. An audit with a narrow purpose and scope would result most likely in less data collection, than an audit with a wider purpose and scope. The scope of an IS audit should not be constrained by the ease of obtaining the information or by the auditor\’s familiarity with the area being audited. Collecting all the required evidence is a required element of an IS audit, and thescope of the audit should not be limited by the auditee\’s ability to find relevant evidence.

Question 5:

Which of the following would an IS auditor use to determine if unauthorized modifications were made to production programs?

A. System log analysis

B. Compliance testing

C. Forensic analysis

D. Analytical review

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation: Determining that only authorized modifications are made to production programs would require the change management process be reviewed to evaluate the existence of a trail of documentary evidence. Compliance testing would help to verify that the change management process has been applied consistently. It is unlikely that the system log analysis would provide information about the modification of programs. Forensic analysis is a specialized technique for criminal investigation. An analytical review assesses the general control environment of an organization.

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Question 6:

To minimize costs and improve service levels an outsourcer should seek which of the following contract clauses?

A. O/S and hardware refresh frequencies

B. Gain-sharing performance bonuses

C. Penalties for noncompliance

D. Charges tied to variable cost metrics

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation: Because the outsourcer will share a percentage of the achieved savings, gain-sharing performance bonuses provide a financial incentive to go above and beyond the stated terms of the contract and can lead to cost savings for the client. Refresh frequencies and penalties for noncompliance would only encourage the outsourcer to meet minimum requirements. Similarly, tying charges to variable cost metrics would not encourage the outsourcer to seek additional efficiencies that might benefit the client.

Question 7:

Which of the following risks could result from inadequate software baselining?

A. Scope creep

B. Sign-off delays

C. Software integrity violations

D. inadequate controls

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation: A software baseline is the cut-off point in the design and development of a system beyond which additional requirements or modifications to the design do not or cannot occur without

undergoing formal strict procedures for approval based on a businesscostbenefit analysis. Failure to adequately manage the requirements of a system through baselining can result in a number of risks. Foremost among these risks is scope creep, the process through which requirements change during development. ChoicesB, C and D may not always result, but choice A is inevitable.

Question 8:

During the audit of an acquired software package, an IS auditor learned that the software purchase was based on information obtained through the Internet, rather than from responses to a request for proposal (RFP). The IS auditor should FIRST:

A. test the software for compatibility with existing hardware.

B. perform a gap analysis.

C. review the licensing policy.

D. ensure that the procedure had been approved.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

In the case of a deviation from the predefined procedures, an IS auditor should first ensure that the procedure followed for acquiring the software is consistent with the

business objectives and has been approved by the appropriate authorities. The other

choices are not the first actions an IS auditor should take. They are steps that may or may not be taken after determining that the procedure used to acquire the software had been

approved.

Question 9:

Which of the following controls would be MOST effective in ensuring that production source code and object code are synchronized?

A. Release-to-release source and object comparison reports

B. Library control software restricting changes to source code

C. Restricted access to source code and object code

D. Date and time-stamp reviews of source and object code

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Date and time-stamp reviews of source and object code would ensure that source code, which has been compiled, matches the production object code. This is the most effective way to ensure that the approved production source code is compiled and is theone being used.

Question 10:

The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is:

A. cost of recovery.

B. negative public opinion.

C. geographic location.

D. downtime.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of an incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident.

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