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Question 1:

An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no computer or communications equipment is a:

A. cold site.

B. warm site.

C. dial-up site.

D. duplicate processing facility.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in

advance of the need.

Incorrect answers:

B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an information processing facility. D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site

that can back up critical applications.


Question 2:

To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against:

A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender\’s private key.

B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender\’s private key.

C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender\’s private key.

D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the sender\’s private key.

Correct Answer: A

A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message, and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest using the sender\’s private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest, only the message digest is enciphered using the sender\’s private key, not the message.


Question 3:

Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software installation?

A. Specific developments only

B. Business requirements only

C. All phases of the installation must be documented

D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation

Correct Answer: C

A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.


Question 4:

. Atomicity enforces data integrity by ensuring that a transaction is either completed in its entirely or not at all. Atomicity is part of the ACID test reference for transaction processing. True or false?

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Atomicity enforces data integrity by ensuring that a transaction is either completed in its entirely or not at all. Atomicity is part of the ACID test reference for transaction processing.


Question 5:

.

Who should be responsible for network security operations?

A. Business unit managers

B. Security administrators

C. Network administrators

D. IS auditors

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Security administrators are usually responsible for network security operations.


CISA PDF DumpsCISA Practice TestCISA Exam Questions

Question 6:

The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be determined based on the:

A. availability of critical and required information.

B. auditor\’s familiarity with the circumstances.

C. auditee\’s ability to find relevant evidence.

D. purpose and scope of the audit being done.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation: The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be related directly to the scope and purpose of the audit. An audit with a narrow purpose and scope would result most likely in less data collection, than an audit with a wider purpose and scope. The scope of an IS audit should not be constrained by the ease of obtaining the information or by the auditor\’s familiarity with the area being audited. Collecting all the required evidence is a required element of an IS audit, and thescope of the audit should not be limited by the auditee\’s ability to find relevant evidence.


Question 7:

An IS auditor has imported data from the client\’s database. The next step-confirming whether the imported data are complete-is performed by:

A. matching control totals of the imported data to control totals of the original data.

B. sorting the data to confirm whether the data are in the same order as the original data.

C. reviewing the printout of the first 100 records of original data with the first 100 records of imported data.

D. filtering data for different categories and matching them to the original data.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation: Matching control totals of the imported data with control totals of the original data is the next logical step, as this confirms the completeness of the imported datA. It is not possible to confirm completeness by sorting the imported data, because the original data may not be in sorted order. Further, sorting does not provide control totals for verifying completeness. Reviewing a printout of 100 records of original data with 100 records of imported data is a process of physical verification andconfirms the accuracy of only these records. Filtering data for different categories and matching them to original data would still require that control totals be developed to confirm the completeness of the data.


Question 8:

During a security audit of IT processes, an IS auditor found that there were no documented security procedures. The IS auditor should:

A. create the procedures document.

B. terminate the audit.

C. conduct compliance testing.

D. identify and evaluate existing practices.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation: One of the main objectives of an audit is to identify potential risks; therefore, the most proactive approach would be to identify and evaluate the existing security practices being followed by the

organization. IS auditors should not prepare documentation, as doing so could jeopardize their independence. Terminating the audit may prevent achieving one of the basic audit objectives, i.e., identification of potential risks. Since there are no documented procedures, there is no basis against whichto test compliance.


Question 9:

Which of the following online auditing techniques is most effective for the early detection of errors or irregularities?

A. Embedded audit module

B. Integrated test facility

C. Snapshots

D. Audit hooks

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation: The audit hook technique involves embedding code in application systems for the examination of selected transactions. This helps an IS auditor to act before an error or an irregularity gets out of hand. An embedded audit module involves embedding specially-written software in the organization\’s host application system so that application systems are monitored on a selective basis. An integrated test facility is used when it is not practical to use test data, and snapshots are used when an audittrail is required.


Question 10:

When developing a formal enterprise security program, the MOST critical success factor (CSF) would be the:

A. establishment of a review board.

B. creation of a security unit.

C. effective support of an executive sponsor.

D. selection of a security process owner.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation: The executive sponsor would be in charge of supporting the organization\’s strategic security program, and would aid in directing the organization\’s overall security management activities. Therefore, support by the executive level of management is themost critical success factor (CSF). None of the other choices are effective without visible sponsorship of top management.


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