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Question 1:

The use of statistical sampling procedures helps minimize:

A. Detection risk

B. Business risk

C. Controls risk

D. Compliance risk

Correct Answer: A


The use of statistical sampling procedures helps minimize detection risk.

Question 2:


What are used as the framework for developing logical access controls?

A. Information systems security policies

B. Organizational security policies

C. Access Control Lists (ACL)

D. Organizational charts for identifying roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: A


Information systems security policies are used as the framework for developing logical access controls.

Question 3:


What is a callback system?

A. It is a remote-access system whereby the remote-access server immediately calls the user back at a predetermined number if the dial-in connection fails.

B. It is a remote-access system whereby the user\’s application automatically redials the remoteaccess server if the initial connection attempt fails.

C. It is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently dials the user back at a predetermined number stored in the server\’s configuration database.

D. It is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently allows the user to call back at an approved number for a limited period of time.

Correct Answer: C

A callback system is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently dials the user back at a predetermined number stored in the server\’s

configuration database.

Question 4:

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor?

A. Lack of reporting of a successful attack on the network

B. Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

C. Lack of periodic examination of access rights

D. Lack of notification to the public of an intrusion

Correct Answer: A



Not reporting an intrusion is equivalent to an IS auditor hiding a malicious intrusion,

which would be a professional mistake. Although notification to the police may be

required and the lack of a periodic examination of access rights might be a concern, they

do not represent as big a concern as the failure to report the attack. Reporting to the

public is not a requirement and is dependent on the organization\’s desire, or lack thereof,

to make the intrusion known.

Question 5:

When reviewing the IT strategic planning process, an IS auditor should ensure that the plan:

A. incorporates state of the art technology.

B. addresses the required operational controls.

C. articulates the IT mission and vision.

D. specifies project management practices.

Correct Answer: C


Explanation: The IT strategic plan must include a clear articulation of the IT mission and vision. The plan need not address the technology, operational controls or project management practices.

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Question 6:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for conducting parallel testing?

A. To determine if the system is cost-effective

B. To enable comprehensive unit and system testing

C. To highlight errors in the program interfaces with files

D. To ensure the new system meets user requirements

Correct Answer: D


The purpose of parallel testing is to ensure that the implementation of a new system will

meet user requirements. Parallel testing may show that the old system is, in fact, better than the new system, but this is not the primary reason. Unit and system testing are completed before parallel testing. Program interfaces with files are tested for errors

during system testing.

Question 7:

An IS auditor is reviewing a project that is using an Agile software development approach. Which of the following should the IS auditor expect to find?

A. Use of a process-based maturity model such as the capability maturity model (CMM)

B. Regular monitoring of task-level progress against schedule

C. Extensive use of software development tools to maximize team productivity

D. Postiteration reviews that identify lessons learned for future use in the project

Correct Answer: D

A key tenet of the Agile approach to software project management is team learning and the use of team learning to refine project management and software development processes as the project progresses. One of the best ways to achieve this is that, atthe end of each iteration, the team considers and documents what worked well and what could have worked better, and identifies improvements to be implemented in subsequent iterations. CMM and Agile really sit at opposite poles. CMM places heavy emphasis on predefined formal processes and formal project management and software development deliverables. Agile projects, by contrast, rely on refinement of process as dictated by the particular needs of the project and team dynamics. Additionally, less importance is placed on formal paper-based deliverables, with the preference being effective informal communication within the

team and with key outside contributors. Agile projects produce releasable software in short iterations, typically ranging from 4 to 8 weeks. This, in itself, instills considerable performance discipline within the team. This, combined with short daily meetings to agree on what the team is doing and the identification of any impediments, renders task-level tracking against a schedule redundant. Agile projects do make use of suitable development tools; however, tools are not seen as the primary means of achieving productivity. Team harmony, effective communications and collective ability to solve challenges are of

Question 8:

An organization is implementing a new system to replace a legacy system. Which of the following conversion practices creates the GREATEST risk?

A. Pilot

B. Parallel

C. Direct cutover

D. Phased

Correct Answer: C


Direct cutover implies switching to the new system immediately, usually without the ability to revert to the old system in the event of problems. All other alternatives are done gradually and thus provide greater recoverability and are therefore less risky.

Question 9:

When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a corporate WAN, an IS auditor should expect to find:

A. an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link.

B. traffic engineering.

C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) encryption of data.

D. analog phone terminals.

Correct Answer: B


To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide area network (WAN) should be protected from packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managedusing statistical techniques such as traffic engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link would not provide the quality of services required for corporate VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless networking. The VoIP phones are usually connected to a corporate local area network (LAN) and are not analog.

Question 10:

During a logical access controls review, an IS auditor observes that user accounts are

shared. The GREATEST risk resulting from this situation is that:

A. an unauthorized user may use the ID to gain access.

B. user access management is time consuming.

C. passwords are easily guessed.

D. user accountability may not be established.

Correct Answer: D


The use of a single user ID by more than one individual precludes knowing who in fact used that ID to access a system; therefore, it is literally impossible to hold anyone accountable. All user IDs, not just shared IDs, can be used by unauthorized individuals. Access management would not be any different with shared IDs, and shared user IDs do not necessarily have easily guessed passwords.

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