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Question 1:

A database administrator is responsible for:

A. defining data ownership.

B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.

C. creating the logical and physical database.

D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database. Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.


Question 2:

.

Which of the following provides the strongest authentication for physical access control?

A. Sign-in logs

B. Dynamic passwords

C. Key verification

D. Biometrics

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Biometrics can be used to provide excellent physical access control.


Question 3:

. After identifying potential security vulnerabilities, what should be the IS auditor\’s next

step?

A. To evaluate potential countermeasures and compensatory controls

B. To implement effective countermeasures and compensatory controls

C. To perform a business impact analysis of the threats that would exploit the vulnerabilities

D. To immediately advise senior management of the findings

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

After identifying potential security vulnerabilities, the IS auditor\’s next step is to perform a business impact analysis of the threats that would exploit the vulnerabilities.


Question 4:

When selecting audit procedures, an IS auditor should use professional judgment to ensure that:

A. sufficient evidence will be collected.

B. all significant deficiencies identified will be corrected within a reasonable period.

C. all material weaknesses will be identified.

D. audit costs will be kept at a minimum level.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation: Procedures are processes an IS auditor may follow in an audit engagement. In determining the appropriateness of any specific procedure, an IS auditor should use professional judgment appropriate to the specific circumstances. Professional judgment involves a subjective and often qualitative evaluation of conditions arising in the course of an audit. Judgment addresses a grey area where binary (yes/no) decisions are not appropriate and the auditor\’s past experience plays a key role in making a judgment. ISACA\’s guidelines provide information on how to meet the standards when performing IS audit work. Identifying material weaknesses is the result of appropriate competence, experience and thoroughness in planning and executing the audit and not of professional judgment. Professional judgment is not a primary input to the financial aspects of the audit.


Question 5:

An IS auditor reviewing an organization that uses cross-training practices should assess the risk of:

A. dependency on a single person.

B. inadequate succession planning.

C. one person knowing all parts of a system.

D. a disruption of operations.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation: Cross-training is a process of training more than one individual to perform a specific job or procedure. This practice helps decrease the dependence on a single person and assists in succession planning. This provides for the backup of personnel in the event of an absence and, thereby,

provides for the continuity of operations. However, in using this approach, it is prudent to have first assessed the risk of any person knowing all parts of a

system and the related potential exposures. Cross-training reduces the risks addressed in choices A, B and D.


CISA VCE DumpsCISA Practice TestCISA Exam Questions

Question 6:

The reason for establishing a stop or freezing point on the design of a new system is to:

A. prevent further changes to a project in process.

B. indicate the point at which the design is to be completed.

C. require that changes after that point be evaluated for cost-effectiveness.

D. provide the project management team with more control over the project design.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation: Projects often have a tendency to expand, especially during the requirements definition phase. This expansion often grows to a point where the originally anticipated cost-benefits are diminished because the cost of the project has increased. When this occurs, it is recommended that the project be stopped or frozen to allow a review of all of the cost-benefits and the payback period.


Question 7:

IT operations for a large organization have been outsourced. An IS auditor reviewing the outsourced operation should be MOST concerned about which of the following findings?

A. The outsourcing contract does not cover disaster recovery for the outsourced IT operations.

B. The service provider does not have incident handling procedures.

C. Recently a corrupted database could not be recovered because of library management problems.

D. incident logs are not being reviewed.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

The lack of a disaster recovery provision presents a major business risk. Incorporating such a provision into the contract will provide the outsourcing organization leverage over the service

provider. Choices B, C and D are problems that should be addressed by the service provider, but are not as important as contract requirements for disaster recovery.


Question 8:

A digital signature contains a message digest to:

A. show if the message has been altered after transmission.

B. define the encryption algorithm.

C. confirm the identity of the originator.

D. enable message transmission in a digital format.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

The message digest is calculated and included in a digital signature to prove that the message has not been altered. It should be the same value as a recalculation performed upon receipt. It does not define the algorithm or enable the transmission indigital format and has no effect on the identity of the user; it is there to ensure integrity rather than identity.


Question 9:

In a public key infrastructure, a registration authority:

A. verifies information supplied by the subject requesting a certificate.

B. issues the certificate after the required attributes are verified and the keys are generated.

C. digitally signs a message to achieve nonrepudiation of the signed message.

D. registers signed messages to protect them from future repudiation.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

A registration authority is responsible for verifying information supplied by the subject requesting a certificate, and verifies the requestor\’s right to request certificate attributes and that the requestor actually possesses the private key corresponding to the public key being sent. Certification authorities, not registration authorities, actually issue certificates once verification of the information has been completed; because of this, choice B is incorrect. On the other hand, the sender who has control of their private key signs the message, not the registration authority. Registering signed messages is not a task performed by registration authorities.


Question 10:

In transport mode, the use of the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol is advantageous over the Authentication Header (AH) protocol because it provides:

A. connectionless integrity.

B. data origin authentication.

C. antireplay service.

D. confidentiality.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Both protocols support choices A, B and C, but only the ESP protocol provides confidentiality via encryption.


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