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Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only
support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)
A. ip pim rp-address
B. ip pim ssm
C. ip pim sparse-mode
D. ip pim passive
Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode
it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so
PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from
where a prune message is received to eliminate the
Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network
segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status. B.
A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge
C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root
bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.
D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility
mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w
segments of the network.
E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and
will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the
Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A
migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs,
the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay
expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port
changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts.
802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it
transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on
any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.
Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding
state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of “restored quickly when RSTP is already in
use?”). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT,
moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to
notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will
transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This
is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable
portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP
Which two options are contained in a VTP subset advertisement? (Choose two.)
A. followers field
B. MD5 digest
C. VLAN information
D. sequence number
When you add, delete, or change a VLAN in a Catalyst, the server Catalyst where the changes are
made increments the configuration revision and issues a summary advertisement. One or several
subset advertisements follow the summary advertisement. A subset advertisement contains a list
of VLAN information.
If there are several VLANs, more than one subset advertisement can be required in order to
advertise all the VLANs.
Subset Advertisement Packet Format
This formatted example shows that each VLAN information field contains information for a different
VLAN. It is ordered so that lowered-valued ISL VLAN IDs occur first:
Most of the fields in this packet are easy to understand. These are two clarifications:
Which three options are considered in the spanning-tree decision process? (Choose three.)
A. lowest root bridge ID
B. lowest path cost to root bridge
C. lowest sender bridge ID
D. highest port ID
E. highest root bridge ID
F. highest path cost to root bridge
Configuration bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) are sent between switches for each port.
Switches use s four step process to save a copy of the best BPDU seen on every port. When a
port receives a better BPDU, it stops sending them. If the BPDUs stop arriving for 20 seconds
(default), it begins sending them again.
Step 1 Lowest Root Bridge ID (BID)
Step 2 Lowest Path Cost to Root Bridge
Step 3 Lowest Sender BID
Step 4 Lowest Port ID
Cisco General Networking Theory Quick Reference Sheets
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is correct about the prefix 18.104.22.168/8?
A. The prefix has encountered a routing loop.
B. The prefix is an aggregate with an as-set.
C. The prefix has been aggregated twice, once in AS 100 and once in AS 200.
D. None of these statements is true.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which path is selected as best path?
A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B.
path 1, because the metric is the lowest C.
path 2, because it is external
D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 is not learning about the 172.16.10.0 subnet from the BGP neighbor R2 (22.214.171.124).
What can be done so that R1 will learn about this network?
A. Disable auto-summary on R2.
B. Configure an explicit network command for the 172.16.10.0 subnet on R2.
C. Subnet information cannot be passed between IBGP peers.
D. Disable auto-summary on R1.
By default, BGP does not accept subnets redistributed from IGP. To advertise and carry subnet
routes in BGP, use an explicit network command or the no auto-summary command. If you disable
auto-summarization and have not entered a network command, you will not advertise network
routes for networks with subnet routes unless they contain a summary route.
Refer to the exhibit.
What triggered the first SPF recalculation?
A. changes in a router LSA, subnet LSA, and external LSA
B. changes in a router LSA, summary network LSA, and external LSA
C. changes in a router LSA, summary network LSA, and summary ASBR LSA
D. changes in a router LSA, summary ASBR LSA, and external LSA
Is built around links, and any IP prefix change in an area will trigger a full SPF. It advertises IP
information in Router and Network LSAs. The routers thus, advertise both the IP prefix information
(or the connected subnet information) and topology information in the same LSAs. This implies
that if an IP address attached to an interface changes, OSPF routers would have to originate a
Router LSA or a Network LSA, which btw also carries the topology information. This would trigger
a full SPF on all routers in that area, since the same LSAs are flooded to convey topological
change information. This can be an issue with an access router or the one sitting at the edge,
since many stub links can change regularly.
Only changes in interarea, external and NSSA routes result in partial SPF calculation (since type
3, 4, 5 and 7 LSAs only advertise IP prefix information) and thus IS-IS
Which two statements are correct about Nonstop Forwarding? (Choose two.)
A. It allows the standby RP to take control of the device after a hardware or software fault on the
B. It is a Layer 3 function that works with SSO to minimize the amount of time a network is
unavailable to users following a switchover.
C. It is supported by the implementation of EIGRP, OSPF, RIPv2, and BGP protocols.
D. It synchronizes startup configuration, startup variables, and running configuration.
E. The main objective of NSF is to continue forwarding IP packets following a switchover.
F. Layer 2 802.1w or 802.1s must be used, as 802.1d cannot process the Layer 2 changes.
G. Routing protocol tuning parameters must be the same as the NSF parameters, or failover will
Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) works with the Stateful Switchover (SSO) feature in Cisco IOS
software. NSF works with SSO to minimize the amount of time a network is unavailable to its
users following a switchover. The main objective of Cisco NSF is to continue forwarding IP
packets following a Route Processor (RP) switchover.
Which two multicast address ranges are assigned as source-specific multicast destination
addresses and are reserved for use by source-specific applications and protocols? (Choose two.)
Explanation: Source-specific multicast (SSM) is a method of delivering multicast packets in which
the only packets that are delivered to a receiver are those originating from a specific source
address requested by the receiver. By so limiting the source, SSM reduces demands on the
network and improves security.
SSM requires that the receiver specify the source address and explicitly excludes the use of the (*,
G) join for all multicast groups in RFC 3376, which is possible only in IPv4\’s IGMPv3 and IPv6\’s
Source-specific multicast is best understood in contrast to any-source multicast (ASM). In the
ASM service model a receiver expresses interest in traffic to a multicast address. The multicast
1. discover all multicast sources sending to that address, and
2. route data from all sources to all interested receivers.
This behavior is particularly well suited to groupware applications where
1. all participants in the group want to be aware of all other participants, and
2. the list of participants is not known in advance.
The source discovery burden on the network can become significant when the number of sources
In the SSM service model, in addition to the receiver expressing interest in traffic to a multicast
address, the receiver expresses interest in receiving traffic from only one specific source sending
to that multicast address.
This relieves the network of discovering many multicast sources and reduces the amount of
multicast routing information that the network must maintain.
SSM requires support in last-hop routers and in the receiver\’s operating system. SSM support is
not required in other network components, including routers and even the sending host. Interest in
multicast traffic from a specific source is conveyed from hosts to routers using IGMPv3 as
specified in RFC 4607.
SSM destination addresses must be in the ranges 126.96.36.199/8 for IPv4 or FF3x::/96 for IPv6.
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