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QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:2

A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of

10 concurrent VOIP calls.

Due to expansion, 15 VOIP calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was

established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded.

Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QoS

configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?

A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue. B.

Remove the policer applied on the priority queue. C.

Remove the shaper applied on the priority queue. D.

Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:9

Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network

segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)

A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status. B.

A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge

comes up.

C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root

bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.

D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility

mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w

segments of the network.

E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and

will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the

administrator.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A

migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs,

the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay

expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port

changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts.

802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it

transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on

any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.

Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding

state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of “restored quickly when RSTP is already in

use?”). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT,

moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to

notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will

transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This

is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable

portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP

states.

Reference

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION NO:12

Which two options are contained in a VTP subset advertisement? (Choose two.)

A. followers field

B. MD5 digest

C. VLAN information

D. sequence number

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Subset Advertisements

When you add, delete, or change a VLAN in a Catalyst, the server Catalyst where the changes are

made increments the configuration revision and issues a summary advertisement. One or several

subset advertisements follow the summary advertisement. A subset advertisement contains a list

of VLAN information.

If there are several VLANs, more than one subset advertisement can be required in order to

advertise all the VLANs.

Subset Advertisement Packet Format

This formatted example shows that each VLAN information field contains information for a different

VLAN. It is ordered so that lowered-valued ISL VLAN IDs occur first:

Most of the fields in this packet are easy to understand. These are two clarifications:

Code

QUESTION NO:14

Which three options are features of VTP version 3? (Choose three.)

A. VTPv3 supports 8K VLANs.

B. VTPv3 supports private VLAN mapping.

C. VTPv3 allows for domain discovery.

D. VTPv3 uses a primary server concept to avoid configuration revision issues.

E. VTPv3 is not compatible with VTPv1 or VTPv2.

F. VTPv3 has a hidden password option.

Answer: B,D,F

Explanation:

Key Benefits of VTP Version 3

Much work has gone into improving the usability of VTP version 3 in three major areas:

The new version of VTP offers better administrative control over which device is allowed to update

other devices\’ view of the VLAN topology. The chance of unintended and disruptive changes is

significantly reduced, and availability is increased. The reduced risk of unintended changes will

ease the change process and help speed deployment.

Functionality for the VLAN environment has been significantly expanded. Two enhancements are

most beneficial for today\’s networks:

Latest 400-101 Dumps400-101 PDF Dumps400-101 VCE Dumps

QUESTION NO:17

Which three combinations are valid LACP configurations that will set up a channel? (Choose

three.)

A. On/On

B. On/Auto

C. Passive/Active

D. Desirable/Auto

E. Active/Active

F. Desirable/Desirable

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which path is selected as best path?

A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B.

path 1, because the metric is the lowest C.

path 2, because it is external

D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:25

Refer to the exhibit.

After a link flap in the network, which two EIGRP neighbors will not be queried for alternative

paths? (Choose two.)

A. 192.168.1.1

B. 192.168.3.7

C. 192.168.3.8

D. 192.168.3.6

E. 192.168.2.1

F. 192.168.3.9

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Explanation

Both 192.168.3.7 and 192.168.3.8 are in an EIGRP Stub area

The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network

stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration.

Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network,

one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to

one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more

distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a

distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the

distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to

many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote

routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a

distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing

table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the

remote router.

When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote

routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are

propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries,

connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message

“inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to

all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet

informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a

stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the

proper updates to all peers.

Reference

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/eigrpstb.html#wp1021949

QUESTION NO:29

What is the first thing that happens when IPv6 is enabled on an interface on a host?

A. A router solicitation is sent on that interface.

B. There is a duplicate address detection on the host interface.

C. The link local address is assigned on the host interface.

D. A neighbor redirect message is sent on the host interface.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Duplicate address detection (DAD) is used to verify that an IPv6 home address is unique on the

LAN before assigning the address to a physical interface (for example, QDIO). z/OS

Communications Server responds to other nodes doing DAD for IP addresses assigned to the

interface.

Reference

http://publib.boulder.ibm.com/infocenter/zos/v1r12/index.jsp?topic=/com.ibm.zos.r12.hale001

/ipv6d0021002145.htm

QUESTION NO:33

Which two OSPF LSA types are new in OSPF version 3? (Choose two.)

A. Link

B. NSSA external

C. Network link

D. Intra-area prefix

E. AS domain

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

New LSA Types

OSPFv3 carries over the seven basic LSA types we\’re familiar with from OSPFv2. However, the

type 1 and 2 LSAs have been re-purposed, as will be discussed in a bit. OSPFv3 also introduces

two new LSA types: Link and Intra-area Prefix.

Reference

http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/mar/2/ospfv2-versus-ospfv3/

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